SEJPME I&amp…. 100%. A grade

SEJPME I&amp…. 100% 101. The purpose of _____ is to maintain legal and moral authority in the conduct of operations. It is based on the actual and perceived legality, morality, and rightness of the acions from the various perspectives of interested audiences. a) Perseverance b) Legitimacy c) Restraint d) Security 102. _____ helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat is counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains. a) Military engagement b) Security cooperation c) Deterrence d) Deception 103. At the strategic level, _____ encompasses those planning activities , such as continuity of operations and continuity of government, undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and SECDEF in a designated national security emergency. a) Military engagement b) Emergency preparedness c) Security cooperation d) Crisis action planning 104. Combating terrorism involves actions taken to oppose terrorism from wherever the threat exists, and encompasses _____ -defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts-and _____-offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorism. a) Consequence management, emergency preparedness b) Counterterrorism, antiterrorism c) Force protection, counterinsurgency d) Antiterrorism, counterterrorism 105. An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as _____. a) Antiterrorism b) Arms control c) Enforcement of sanctions d) Show of force 106. The DoD contribution to a unified action effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the USG is called _____. a) Enforcing exclusion zones b) Show of force c) Security force assistance d) Sanctions enforcement 107. Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve, and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. a) Economy of force b) Show of force c) Enforcement d) Nation assistance 108. Joint force commanders must integrate and synchronize offensive, defensive, and stability operations that compromise major operations and campaigns. Planning for stability operations should begin _____. a) Near the end of joint operation planning b) Only after planning for offensive and defensive operations is complete c) At the start of Phase IV Stabilize d) When joint operation planning is initiated 109. Although _____ may be the stronger posture, it is the _____ that is normally decisive in combat. Therefore, commanders will normally seek to transition to the decisive operations et the earliest opportunity. a) Joint, single-Service b) Offense, defense c) Defense, offense d) Attrition, maneuver 110. Major operation and campaign plans must feature a (n)_____ offensive, defensive, and stability operations in all phases. a) Equal proportion of b) Similar degree of c) Appropriate balance between d) Effective sequencing of 111. Joint force commanders strive to isolate enemies by denying them _____. The intent is to strip away as much enemy support or freedom of action as possible, while limiting the enemy’s potential for horizontal or vertical escalation. a) Movement and maneuver b) Allies and sanctuary c) Airfields and seaports d) Command and control 112.Preplanned, deterrence-oriented actions carefully tailored to bring an issue to early resolution without armed conflict are known as _____. a) Peacekeeping b) Flexible deterrent options c) Diplomatic efforts d) Smart power 113. A joint military operation conducted either as a major operation or a part of a larger campaign to seize and hold a military lodgment in the face of armed opposition for the continuous landing of forces is called ____. These operations may include amphibious, airborne, and air assault operations, or any combination thereof. a) Joint reception, staging, onward-movement, and integration b) Forcible entry c) Full spectrum superiority d) Force protection 114. The ultimate measure of success in peace building is _____. Therefore, joint force commanders seek a clear understanding of the national and coalition strategic end state and how military operations support that end state. a) Political, not military b) Adversary military culmination c) Economic sufficiency d) Security sector reform 115. The responsibility to plan and coordinate U.S. government efforts in stabilization and reconstruction has been assigned to _____. a) Department of State b) Department of Defense c) Geographic Combatant Command d) U.S. Agency for International Development 116. Pursuant to Executive Order 12656, the _____ is responsible for the protection and evacuation of American citizens abroad and for safeguarding their property. a) Department of Defense b) Department of Homeland Security c) Geographic Combatant Command d) Department of State 117. Military operations that apply military force or threaten its use, normally pursuant to international authorization, to compel compliance with resolutions or sanctions designed to maintain or restore peace and order are known as _____ operations. a) Peacekeeping b) Peace enforcement c) Peace building d) Peace making 118. In foreign humanitarian assistance operations, commanders usually establish a _____ because it is critical to working with the participating intergovernmental organizations (IGOs) and nongovernmental organizations (NGOs). a) Joint operations center (JOC) b) Joint intelligence center (JIOC) c) Civil-military operations center (CMOC) d) Media operations center (MOC) 119. Operations conducted to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, sensitive equipment, items critical to national security, or human remains are known as _____. a) Noncombatant evacuation operations b) Recovery operations c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Consequence management 120. A military operation to temporarily seize an area, usually through forcible entry, in order to secure information, confuse an adversary, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy an objective or capability is called a _____. It ends with a planned withdrawal upon competition of the assigned mission. a) Peace operation b) Raid c) Recovery operation d) Noncombatant evacuation operation 121. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example od a(n) _____. a) Multinational force b) Alliance c) Unified command d) Coalition 122. Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected by. a) Financial resources constraints b) Motives and values of the organization’s members c) Media influence d) Non-military organizations 123. Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. a) Lack of coalition security teams b) Conflicting personalities c) Varying levels of experience among coalition partners d) A command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and rewards the sharing of information 124. Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partners means _____. a) We must treat them as professionals with limited skills b) We must continually reinforce our standards upon them c) Recognizing that their training and education may differ, but does not mean they are less dedicated or professional d) Continuously demonstrating our superiority over them 125. The vetting process for participation in multinational operations serves as a mechanism to _____. a) Support and enhance individual efforts b) Increase perceived legitimacy of operations domestically and internationally c) Minimize clashes that may occur between intergovernmental agencies d) Force all participants to authorize full range of employment of their forces 126. Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include_____. a) Leader development and national interest b) Religion and culture c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d) Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) 127. When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to _____. a) Ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests b) Ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage c) Utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of any one location d) Only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners 128. During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____. a) Develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws b) Target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war c) Enforce local Rules of Engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE d) Properly control, maintain, protect, and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, regardless of their category 129. Main role is deterrence. Should hostilities arise, provides forces for prompt and sustained combat primarily on land. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 130. Fills the three main roles: Strategic nuclear deterrence, Deployment of forces overseas, Security of the Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs). a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 131. Provides fleet marine forces of combined arms, together with supporting air components, for two purposes: Service with the fleet in the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases, Conduct land operations essential to the prosecution of a naval campaign. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 132. Primary role is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 133. Protect the public, the environment, and U.S. economic interests in any maritime region offering service on five areas: Maritime Safety, National Defense, Maritime Security, Mobility, Protection of National Resources. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 134. Organize, train, and equip Special Operations Forces (SOFs) for activities or missions for all the Services. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 135. The primary function of the Services and Special Operations Command is to provide forces, each of which is organized, trained, and equipped to perform specific roles. a) True b) False 136. What is the Army’s primary role? a) To train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of land combat power b) To support the other Services c) To train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of both land and air combat power d) All of the above 137. Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a) Humanitarian assistance b) Cyberspace operations c) Training of foreign militaries d) Major combat operations 138. What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Security Strategy (NSS)? (Select all that apply.) a) Secure the United States from direct attack b) Secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action c) Strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships d) Establish favorable security conditions 139. These capabilities compromise the core of the U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in emphasis on those activities that prevent was and build partnerships. a) Readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training b) Peacekeeping and contingency operations c) Forward presence, deterrence, sea and area control d) Forward presence, deterrence, sea and area control, power projection, maritime security, and humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HS/DR) 140. Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force Concept, employing combinations of Active Duty and Reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. a) True b) False 141. Which of the following are roles of the U.S. Marine Corps according to Title 10 U.S. Code? a) Visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) training for embargo or interception operations b) Develop tactics, techniques, and equipment-use phases of amphibious operations by landing c) Narcotics/drug interdiction and illegal alien interdiction d) All of the above 142. Which of the following best define the benefits of versatility in aerospace power? (Select all that apply.) a) Versality allows aerospace forces to be employed at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels equally effectively. b) Versality allows air operations to shift quickly and decisively from one campaign objective to another c) Versatility allows aerospace forces to achieve objectives simultaneously at all three levels of war in parallel operations. 143. Aerospace Forces produce synergistic effects that are designed not to exceed separately employed individual forces. a) True b) False 144. Which of the following are among the Coast Guard’s roles? (Select all that apply.) Being transferred by Presidential order to the U.S. Navy for operational purposes a) Law enforcement b) Environmental enforcement c) Environmental protection d) Ice Operations e) Search and Rescue 145. The Army can trace its origins to colonial America. a) True b) False 146. Which of the following describes the Army’s regulations, including every detail of the Soldier’s life? a) Blue Book of the Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States b) The Army Regulations of 1821 c) The Constitution d) All of the above 147. During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward stopping old rivalries and conflicts? a) The end of the Cold War b) The collapse of the Warsaw Pact c) The rise of global terrorism d) The breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states 148. Which of the lessons learned during the Mexican War did the Union Navy use? a) Move forward from the sea and seize ports b) Embargo trade and blockade c) Extract without foundering and unload troops while maintaining stern to the surf d) Choices 2 and 3 e) Choices 1 and 2 149. Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) a) Long-range reconnaissance planes b) Escort carriers c) Destroyers equipped with advanced sonars d) Direction-finding equipment e) Anti-submarine weapons 150. Through which of the following strategies has the U.S. Navy retained its traditional roles while expanding into expeditionary warfare? a) Sea power concept b) “From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea c) U.S. Containment Policy 151. Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event? a) No Higgins boats were available b) It represented the final trial and full integration of the Armed Forces c) The marines were well-trained 152. Which of the following are examples of how the Marine Corps has adapted and evolved as an expeditionary force? (Select all that apply.) a) Amphibious operations b) MPFs and MAGTFs c) Close air support d) Helicopter-borne vertical envelopment tactics 153. In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? a) For speed and dispersion b) To provide material needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone c) For amphibious assault 154. During the 1930s, which two essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) a) A vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 b) A comprehensive doctrine of air warfare c) Clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation 155. Which of the following problems faced the newly created Air Force in 1947? (Select all that apply.) a) Establishing an organization adapted to air operations b) Transitioning from propeller-driven aircraft to jet aircraft c) Modifying doctrine, strategy, and tactics to accommodate nuclear weapons d) Frequent incoming ballistic missiles e) Arranging for support services 156. Which of the following represent highlights of U.S. Air Force history? a) Design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence b) Development of the Strategic Air Command c) Expansion into space d) All of the above 157. What Services were established as precursors to the U.S. Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) a) Lighthouse Service and Revenue Cutter Service b) Bureau of Navigation c) Life Saving Service d) Steamboat Inspection Service e) Transportation Security Administration 158. USCG has always served under the Security of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission. a) True b) False 159. The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine “over the water,” a historical reference to James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. a) True b) False 160. Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner? a) Begin planning months in advance with the proposed guest list b) Printing and mailing invitations four to six weeks in advance c) Planning the menu and walking through the upcoming evening’s sequence of events d) Identifying unique cultural considerations in a foreign country e) All of the above 161. A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? a) Ignore it as any self-generated entertainment b) Refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour c) Return the embarrassment in kind 162. Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies? a) Admirals b) Commanders c) Chief petty officers d) None of the above 163. Which core value does the following tenet represent: make decisions in the best interest of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? a) Honor b) Commitment c) Courage d) None of the above 164. Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) a) Dining-in and Mess Night b) Addressing Enlisted Marines c) Hail and Farewell d) Marine Corps Birthday Ball 165. Which of the following represents Marine core values? a) Competence b) Resolution c) Courage d) No wounded or dead Marine will ever be left on the field or unattended, regardless of the cost of bringing him in. e) All of the above 166. While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marin’s name and grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer. a) True b) False 167. Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotion second, and (c) Re-enlistments third. a) True b) False 168. The fallen comrade’s toast at a mess night is the last toast to be given. a) True b) False 169. The newest and lest formal of the dinning traditions, requiring combat dress. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 170. A newer custom than Dining-In, which includes spouses and other guests. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 180. Formal dinner for the members of the military. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 181. Which of the following ceremonies affirms a “Leader among Leaders” in the USAF, using a symbol of truth, justice, and power rightly used? a) Top 3 Induction b) The order of the Sword c) Grog Bowl d) None of the above 182. Which of the following is the USCG motto? 1. “Semper Fidelis” 2. “Anchors Aweigh” 3. “Semper Paratus” 4. None of the above 183. The United States Coast Guard’s motto is Semper Paratus, meaning “always ready.” 1. True 2. False 184. Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60% 185. which of the following is NOT one of the major levels of mobilization? a) Full mobilization b) Limited reserve call-up c) Partial mobilization d) Presidential reserve call-up 186. Which mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support requirements of any operational mission? a) Partial mobilization (PM) b) SecDef call-up (SCU) c) Presidential reserve call-up (PRC) d) Selective mobilization (SM) 187. Which type of mobilization entails mobilizing all Reserve Component units in the existing approved force structure, as well as all individual reservists, retired military personnel, and the resources needed to meet requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, and is for the duration of the emergency plus six months? a) Full mobilization (FM) b) Partial mobilization (PM) c) Selective mobilization (SM) d) Total mobilization (TM) 189. _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. a) Adaptability b) Predictability c) Transformation d) Training 190. With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on the _____. a) Army National Guard b) Army Reserve c) Both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve d) None of the answers are correct 191. Reserve Component units train to a lesser standard than Active Component units. a) True b) False 192. The primary responsibilities of the Air Force Reserve Components, the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard, include airlift and air refueling. a) True b) False 193. The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. a) Army Reserve and Army National Guard b) Air Reserve and Air National Guard c) Navy Reserve and Maritime Corps Reserve d) Air National Guard and Army National Guard 194. Which of the following Reserve Component is NOT part of the Department of Defense? a) Army National Guard b) Coast Guard Reserve c) Marine Corps Reserve d) Navy Reserve 195. Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____objectives. a) Tactical b) Strategic or operational c) Insignificant d) Intermediate 196. Most special operations forces are _____oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and a language capability for their assigned areas. a) Politically b) Mission c) Regionally d) Special tactics 197. Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostiles, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called _____. It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. a) Special reconnaissance b) Counterterrorism c) Direct action d) Unconventional warfare 198. Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. a) Strategic reporting b) Foreign internal defense c) Special reconnaissance d) Unconventional warfare 199. Operations and activities that are conducted to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupying power by operating through or with an underground, auxiliary, and guerrilla force in a denied are known as _____. It is a core activity is special operations forces. a) Unconventional warfare b) Civil affairs operations c) Special reconnaissance d) Direct action 200. Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command responsible for providing mission capable operations forces to the geographic combatant commanders. a) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) b) United States Strategic Command (USSSTRATCOM) c) United States Special operations (USSOCOM) d) United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)