SEJPME I&…. 100% Graded with an A

SEJPME I&…. 100% 301. Who is considered the "Father of the Coast Guard?" a) Douglas Munro b) Ida Lewis c) Sumner Kimball d) Alexander Hamilton 302. The first step in solving a problem is to _____. a) gather multiple perspectives on the problem b) report the problem to the commanding officer c) define the problem d) draft an action plan 303. The first-ever National Defense Strategy (NDS) was initiated by Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) Rumsfeld in 2005, and then updated in 2008 by SECDEF Gates. However in 2012, SECDEF Panetta released Sustaining U.S. Global Leadership: Priorities for 21st Century Defense, sometimes referred to as the _____, and widely understood to be the replacement for the NDS. This strategic document was written to identify defense priorities in the face of budget cuts. a) National Military Strategy b) Defense Strategic Guidance (correct) c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy 305. Joint _____ provides the fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective. a) doctrine 306. What are the Army's primary missions? (Select all that apply.) b) responding to crises c) shaping the international environment d) preparing now for an uncertain future 307. The principle of joint operations designed to ensure the commitment necessary to attain the national strategic end state is _____. a) Perseverance SEJPME II 308) Which of the following actions may help overcome the staff organization challenge of integrating communication-related activities? a) ensure these tasks are led only by the J3 or J5 b) ensure there is no divide between primary agency "inform" role and "influence" activities c) establish some form of communication directorate or cell d) creating a passive communication posture 309) Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE? a) Much of the information precipitating operational commanders' major decisions across all event horizons will likely come off the JOC floor, rather than through other venues. b) Some branch and sequel planning at the operational level may not result in precise, detailed predictive decision points with associated CCIRs. c) Branch and sequel planning, at the operational level, results in precise, predictive decision points with associated CCIRs d) Decision points supporting branch and sequel execution are normally extremely well defined and quantitative requiring minimal commander interface for decision. 310) This critical path involves the use of a joint targeting working group (JTWG) that enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and supporting nonlethal responses. a) lethal actions b) inform and influence c) stability d) steering 311) Planning for communication strategy involves the careful alignment of themes and messages with interagency organizations and other stakeholders. a) True b) False 312) The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is known as _____. a) combatant command b) operational control c) tactical control d) administrative control 313) Force protection is a required activity throughout each joint operation or campaign phase. This type of operation is a(n) _____ operation. a) planning b) offensive c) defensive d) stability 314) The joint communications system includes synchronization of war fighting functions, such as locating and identifying friendly forces, and supports the conduct of operations. This contributes to _____. a) tactical flexibility b) strategic agility c) network-enabled operations d) operational reach 315) Which of the following are challenges commanders face in identifying key audiences? (Select all that apply.) a) Key audiences may overlap local, regional, and global arenas. b) Key audiences may be adversarial, neutral, or friendly. c) Key audiences do not include groups of people who are hostile to the mission. d) Key audiences will all have the same reactions to words, actions, and images. e) Key audiences could be any group of people who may impact the joint task force's operations. 316) What effect(s) can occur when commanders retain tactical level decision-oriented CCIRs at the operational level in lieu of decentralizing CCIRs associated with decentralized decision approval levels? a) slows subordinates' agility b) adds unnecessary reporting requirements c) shifts HQ's focus away from setting conditions d) All of the answers are correct 317) Which of the following provides the necessary upfront direction for the synchronization of staff planning efforts for both lethal and nonlethal activities? a) objectives, priorities, and commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) b) planning guidance, commander's intent, and an operational framework c) targeting data, diplomatic information military and economic (DIME) data, and planning guidance d) objectives, priorities, and an operational framework 318) The principles of personnel support are defined as having a _____ that is _____. a) command emphasis; responsive, and responsible b) staff emphasis; responsive and responsible c) command emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible d) staff emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible 319) The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. a) Service Chiefs b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the Combatant Commanders 320) Commanders have recognized the need for some form of staff organization that can _____ to inform or influence the audiences in support of desired outcomes. (Select all that apply.) a) craft the themes and messages b) synchronize actions, words, and images c) direct communication strategy through a stove-piped process d) remain passive in the information environment 321) A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating _____. a) state and local militias b) nongovernmental organizations c) partner nation intelligence capabilities and assessments d) interested UN countries 322) Automation technology can be used to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of _____ to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of _____ to make an assessment. a) data, information b) information, intelligence c) intelligence, data d) data, intelligence 333) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are defined as "enabling"? (Select all that apply.) a) Contract support b) Multinational support c) Force protection d) Legal support 334) What is a target? a) All enemy entities or objects b) An offensive of defensive enemy weapon considered for engagement or action c) An entity or object considered for lethal fires d) An entity or object considered for possible engagement or action 335) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media? a) network security intrusions b) espionage c) all of the answers are correct d) none of the answers are correct e) personal identity theft and impersonation 336) The _____ serves as the diplomatically accredited defense attaché (DATT) and chief of the security assistance organization (SAO). a) U.S. Defense Attaché Office b) chief of mission c) joint task force liaison officer d) senior defense official 337) Which of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of joint headquarters battle rhythms? a) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command, staff, and unit activities intended to provide the commander with a method to track current operational events. b) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command and staff activities intended to control the flow of future operations. c) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command, staff, and unit activities intended to synchronize current and future operations. d) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command and staff activities that enable the commander to accomplish mission objectives. 338) Which of the following statement(s) describes the benefit of the adaptive planning process? (Select all that apply.) a) centers on a strategic-level "Capstone" plan that provides the framework for other plans that address contingencies that could happen in the geographic combatant command's areas of responsibility b) allows for continual update and shared awareness of the plans c) ensures each of the contingency plans take into account national interests so that actions addressing one contingency do not inadvertently impact U.S. national interests in another area 339) Which of the following can be described as the most powerful command relationship in terms of gaining access to additional capabilities? a) support b) tactical control (TACON) c) operational control (OPCON) 340) Which of the following National Intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence. a) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Joint Staff Directorate for Intelligence, J2 341) _____ is the routine contact and interaction between U.S. Armed Forces and another nation's armed forces, foreign and domestic civilian authorities, and agencies to build trust and confidence. a) Security b) Large-scale combat c) Relief and reconstruction d) Military engagement 342) During _____, the Joint Force Commander will identify the operational problems to solve and determine where to focus the staff's efforts. a) Mission Analysis b) Course of Action Development c) Planning Initiation d) Plan or Order Development 343) How can the sustainment community provide better support to the components and the commander's decision-making? a) The sustainment community provides better support when it comes together as a team that is fully integrated across the staff. b) The sustainment community provides better support when its numbers of available staff personnel are commensurate with the size of the tactical force it is designated to support. c) The sustainment community provides better support when it focuses closer on the tactical fight. 344) Which of the following statements is true regarding organizing the various staff sections as a sustainment team? a) The sustainment team should always be organized under the oversight of a deputy commanding general - support (DCG-S). b) The primary JFC staff sections that would make up the sustainment team include the J1, J4, J8, Engineer, Surgeon, Legal, and Chaplain. c) Organizing the staff as a sustainment team is never effective at the component level and below. 345) The J2 has overall staff responsibility for consolidating and recommending _____. a) priority intelligence requirements (PIRs) b) host nation information requirements (HNIRs) c) specific information requirements (SIRs) d) friendly force information requirements (FFIRs) 346) Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)? a) straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan b) upfront correct determination of measures-of-effectiveness planning c) enable an accurate visualization of progress toward mission accomplishment d) used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment 347) For the execution of a successful communication strategy, staff synchronization _____. (Select all that apply.) a) requires cross-talk and cross-representation b) integrates products c) breaks down staff planning into clearly defined major subsets d) does not impact actions, words, and images e) relies on informed commander's guidance f) begins at the execution phase of operations 348) Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE? a) Recommendations are normally not developed by the assessment cell, but rather by the affected/responsible staff focused on specific lines of operation. b) Staff assessments products do not necessarily have to support the commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information. c) Staff assessments should provide recommendations to the commander based upon the assessment. 349) Which of the following statements describes characteristics of a well-written problem statement that can help focus the staff and subsequent planning process? a) The problem statement should mirror the mission statement to avoid any ambiguity as to what the end state should be. b) The problem statement should not allow external stakeholders to gain a shared, common understanding, but should lead the commander and planners to quickly narrow the focus. c) The problem statement should not pose a solution, accounts for current circumstances, and does not predict what future actions may occur. d) The problem statement should focus on solving the problem and should directly, or implicitly, propose solutions. 350) What is the primary goal of operational design? a) Conceive and construct and the framework that underpins a campaign or major operation plan b) Understand the ends, ways, and means c) Link tactical action to strategic objectives d) Visualize the ultimate operational approach 351) The _____ is the principal assistant to the President in all matters relating to the DoD. a) SecDef b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Inspector General of the DoD d) JCS Vice Chairman 352) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 353) Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) a) organizing and training b) balance and simultaneity c) stability operations d) conduct of rehearsals 354) What information management (IM) activity is normally a theater-level decision because of its significant second order effects, such as interoperability within the joint force, fielding and pre-mission training? a) battle rhythm development maintenance procedures b) determination of the networks, databases, and software applications c) use of commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) to guide and prioritize information flow d) development of procedures into a formalized, authoritative document 355) Which of the following are key elements of a communication strategy? a) narrative, theme, and message b) words, actions, and audience c) condition, opportunity, and audience d) stability, peace, and prosperity 356) Which statement best describes what is meant by the term "battle for the narrative?" a) ongoing "information war" between competing nations, entities, and/or ideologies to gain superiority over the adversary's narrative and align communication efforts b) race to exploit and change the perceptions of our international partners in order to forward the goals and intentions of the U.S. Government and its allies c) challenge of constructing similar strategic narratives distributed throughout multiple networks to reinforce the beliefs, perceptions, attitudes, and behaviors of our coalition partners and host nation governments d) struggle to be first to control the messages that only the adversaries will hear in order to inform and/or influence their beliefs and perspectives 357) Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today's headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions? a) KM is people-centric. IM is information technology-centric. b) KM is technology-centric. IM is people-centric. c) KM focuses on the rules, procedures, applications, and tools. IM focuses on the players gaining and sharing knowledge to aid decision making. d) KM balances the need-to-share with the need-to-know. IM leverages the different perspectives of the myriad of players. 358) _____ focus on the enemy or adversary and the operational environment and drive intelligence collection and production requirements. a) Priority intelligence requirements b) Friendly force information requirements c) Tactical information requirements d) Commander's critical information requirements 359) The use of capabilities oriented functional task forces, such as special operations and counter improvised explosive device (IED) task forces, is a significant evolution in joint task force organization. a) True b) False 360) How can headquarters staff personnel effectively deal with the challenge of unplanned demands from higher headquarters that may affect the battle rhythm? a) The battle rhythm must be sufficiently flexible to provide the support to the commander in dealing with the event, and still be able to function in the commander's absence. b) Headquarters staff personnel should maintain constant communication with higher headquarters in an effort to prevent unplanned events which may affect the battle rhythm. c) The battle rhythm should be managed by a J-code director or deputy when necessary, so that the commander can deal with the unplanned event. d) The battle rhythm should be packed with events that ensure all demands from higher headquarters are being met, thereby minimizing unplanned events. 361) _____ is an operation that encompasses comprehensive civilian and military efforts taken to defeat an insurgency and to address any core grievances. a) Counterinsurgency b) Counterterrorism c) Foreign internal defense d) Stability 362) When framing the interorganizational coordination process, the first question to be asked will usually be: a) Who are the appropriate mission partners? b) How are you sharing interorganizational perspectives within your organization to enrich the Commander's decision making? c) How are you coordinating with your mission partners? d) How will you share information with mission partners? 363) Communication strategy is not a separate or parallel effort, but an integral part of the commander's overall strategy that ensures a shared understanding of the commander's vision, mission, and objectives. a) True b) False 364) During Crisis Action Planning, COA _____ is an objective process where the staff considers COAs independently of one another, against a set of criteria established by the Joint Force Commander and staff. a) analysis b) elimination c) comparison d) development 365) The mayor of San Antonio has asked the 502 Wing Commander for security forces and military police from Fort Sam Houston to assist the local police during the annual fiesta events. The mayor wants the military to assist with traffic and crowd control. Can Title 10 military personnel conduct this type of support? a) yes, because this type of support is permissible under the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act b) yes, because the mayor requested the support only for traffic and crowd control c) yes, but only for Army and Air Force personnel; Marines and Navy personnel cannot provide support d) no, traffic control and crowd control is a violation of the Posse Comitatus Act 366) The authority to protect the resilience and redundancy of critical civilian infrastructure resides with the National Security Agency (NSA) under which U.S. Code? a) Title 22 b) Title 14 c) Title 50 d) Title 10 367) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. a) True b) False 368. _____ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). If favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. a) Asymmetric Warfare b) Traditional War c) Joint Warfare d) Irregular Warfare 369. The ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are _____. a) Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic b) Diplomacy, Defense, and Development c) Political, Military, Economic, Social, Informational, and Infrastructure d) Culture, Industry, Technology, and Geography 370. The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the _____. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) National Military Strategy 371. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distribution and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) National Defense Strategy d) National Military Strategy 372. The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. a) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy b) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State c) President, Vice President, Secretary od State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury d) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security 373. The _____ is the President's principle forum for considering national security maters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. a) Secretary of Homeland Security b) Secretary of Defense c) National Security Council d) Joint Chiefs of Staff 374. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. a) Service Chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Combatant Commanders c) Combatant Commanders via the Service Chiefs d) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Service Chiefs 375. The _____ outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. a) Chairman of he Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Supreme Allied Commander c) Combatant Commander d) War Council 376. A Unified or Specified Command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a _____. a) Joint Task Force b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Combatant Command d) Component Command 377. A _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SecDef, a Combatant Commander, a Subordinate Commander, or an existing JTF Commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. a) Combatant Command b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Joint Task Force d) Service Component Command 378. The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: a) Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander b) Combatant Commander, Service Component Commander, and Functional Component Commander c) Joint Task Force Commander, Functional Component Commander, and Subunified Commander d) Service Component Commander, Combatant Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander 379. Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of _____. a) Joint Task Force Commanders b) Subunified Commanders c) Service Component Commanders d) Functional Component Commanders 380. These commands are established by Combatant Commanders when authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as United States Forces Japan or a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific. a) Combatant Commands b) Subordinate Unified Commands c) Joint Task Forces d) Functional Component Commands 381. Combatant Commanders exercise _____ (command authority) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM) 382. ¬¬¬¬_____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigned tasks, designating objectives, and giving authorization direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. a) Combatant Command b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Administrative Control (ADCON) 383. The four categories of support are _____. a) General, tactical, operational, and strategic b) Tactical, operational, direct, and common c) General, mutual, direct, and close d) Reinforcing, mutual, complementary, and close 384. Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability of forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as _____. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM) 385. The command authority established by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force is called _____. a) Combatant Command b) Administrative Control c) Operational Control d) Support 386. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces' plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Military Strategy c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy 387. The statutory advisers to the National Security Council are the _____. a) Director of National Intelligence and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Director of Central Intelligence and the Attorney General c) National Security Advisor and the Economic Advisor d) Secretary of Homeland Security and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 388. The document, approved by the President, which delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders, is called the _____. a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) Guidance for Employment of the Force 389. The Joint Staff is under exclusive authority, direction, and control of the _____. a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Service Chiefs 390. Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values, the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. a) Geneva convention b) Constitutional principles c) Military law d) Uniformed code of military justice 391. This term refers to the aggregate of features and trails that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. a) Competence b) Character c) Justice d) Leadership 392. The purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service’s capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both (i.e., synergy) is known as _____. a) Mutual trust b) Bilateral agreement c) Joint interdependence d) Joint requirement 393. The concept of “jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply? a) Joint Staff Leaders do not endorse joint force development b) “Jointness” is not an automatic Service state of being c) Service members naturally embrace “jointness” d) Joint force development is a “one-time” occurrence in one’s career 394. _____ prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, o tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to execute their assigned or anticipated missions. a) Joint doctrine b) Joint education c) Joint training d) Joint concepts 395. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission. a) True b) False 396. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____. a) Regularly b) Cautious power c) Risk supervision d) Disciplined initiative 397. Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. a) Rank b) Delegation of authority c) Maturity d) Experience 398. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification? a) True b) False 399. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. a) Irregular warfare environment b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian operations d) Support for civil authorities 400. If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. a) True b) False