Nurse Practitioner 6521. Grade A 100%

Nurse Practitioner 6521 Quiz2HA Which patient is the most appropriate candidate for combined estrogen/progestin product for prevention of pregnancy or transition to menopause? Guidelines for Standard Precautions indicate that mask and eye protection or a face mask should be used while performing: A. tube feedings. B. patient bathing. C. wet-to-dry dressing changes. D. trachea care and suctioning. Use of masks and eye protection or a face mask is indicated during procedures that are likely to generate splashes or sprays of body fluids, which include endotracheal secretions. During tube feedings, patient bathing, and wet-to-dry dressing changes, there is no splashing of body fluids. 48. You are performing a vaginal examination for a patient with a history of spina bifida. As you insert the metal speculum, the patient suddenly feels nauseated and is sweating, and her skin turns blotchy. What is your most immediate reaction to this situation? A. Replace the metal speculum with a plastic one. B. Put a blanket over the patient’s legs. C. Remove the speculum. D. Take her blood pressure. 47. When transillumination of a body cavity is performed, the use of which of the following could be harmful to the patient? A. Penlight B. Flashlight C. Halogen bulb D. Otoscope light 46. Transillumination functions on the principle that: A. air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. B. black light causes certain substances to fluoresce. C. converging and diverging light brings structures into focus. D. tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours. 45. When monitoring serial measures, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? A. Record the anatomic location for tape placement in the patient’s chart. B. Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen. C. Demonstrate proper tape placement to all members of the health care team. D. Ask the same person to perform the measurement each time. 44. A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? A. Brush and needle B. Tuning fork and cotton swab C. Penlight and goniometer D. Ruler and bell 43. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should: A. briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer. B. place the hammer firmly on the tendon for 3 to 5 seconds. C. tap the silver end of the hammer on the tendon. D. use the needle implement to determine sensory perception. 42. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: A. buzzing or tingling sensations. B. buzzing from bone conduction. C. hearing range of normal speech. D. noise above the threshold level. 41. Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are “stopped up.” An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the: A. tuning fork. B. reflex hammer. C. otoscope with pneumatic attachment. D. tympanometer. 40. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate: A. ear canal patency. B. eardrum landmarks. C. hearing acuity. D. tympanic membrane movement. 39. Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient’s tympanic membrane? A. The smallest speculum that will illuminate the ear B. The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear C. The shortest speculum available D. Any speculum that will fit the otoscope head A patient in the emergency department has a concussion. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? A. Grid B. Red-free filter C. Slit lamp D. Small aperture You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise, then counterclockwise to compensate for: A. amblyopia. B. astigmatism. C. myopia. D. strabismus. Weak pulses, fetal heart activity, and vessel patency are all best assessed with which type of stethoscope? A. Acoustic B. Electronic C. Ultrasonic D. Magnetic A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: A. prevent the transmission of static electricity. B. prevent cold metal from touching the patient. C. prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient’s skin. D. ensure secure contact with the body surface. Which of the following occurs when firm pressure is used to apply the stethoscope’s bell endpiece to the skin? A. It transmits low-pitched sounds. B. It functionally converts to a diaphragm end-piece. C. Assessment findings are more accurate. D. Most sounds are occluded. The infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured? A. Vertically with the examiner’s hands under the infant’s axillae B. Supine on a measuring board C. Prone on a measuring board D. In the lateral position with the toes against a measuring board The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled up: A. before the patient steps on the scale. B. before the scale is balanced. C. after the patient steps on the scale. D. only after weight has been assessed. A scale used to assess patients’ weight should be calibrated: A. only by the manufacturer. B. by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals. C. each time it is used. D. when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale. 30. The fifth vital sign is: A. pain. B. orientation. C. waist-to-hip ratio. D. body mass index (BMI). 29. Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed: A. anterior to the ear. B. posterior to the ear. C. under the ear. D. in the auditory canal. 28. Axillary measurement of temperature correlates best with core temperatures of: A. infants. B. adolescents. C. average-size adults. D. older adults. 27. If a sufficiently large cuff is unavailable to fit an obese arm, which technique may be used to assess blood pressure? A. Wrap a standard cuff around the deltoid area and place the stethoscope over the radial artery. B. Wrap a standard cuff around the forearm and place the stethoscope over the radial artery. C. Wrap a standard cuff around the thigh and place the stethoscope on the dorsalis pedis. D. Wrap a pediatric cuff around the ankle and place the stethoscope on the popliteal artery. 26. A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to: A. cover 20% to 25% of the arm circumference. B. cover 45% to 50% of the arm circumference. C. cover 75% to 80% of the arm circumference. D. completely encircle the arm. 25. Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the cuff’s width covers: A. less than one half of the upper arm. B. less than 5 inches of the lower arm. C. more than two thirds of the upper arm. D. more than 4 inches of the lower arm. 24. Observing the rise and fall of the abdomen usually facilitates calculation of respiratory rate in the: A. infant. B. adolescent female. C. pregnant patient. D. older adult. 23. Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the: A. neck area. B. heart. C. lungs. D. abdomen. 22. You are auscultating a patient’s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? A. Anticipate the next sounds. B. Isolate each cycle segment. C. Listen to all sounds together. D. Move the stethoscope clockwise. 21. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: A. asking patients to describe their symptoms. B. closing your eyes. C. performing auscultation before percussion. D. using an aneroid manometer. 20. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? A. Finger percussion B. Palmar percussion C. Fist percussion D. Forearm percussion 19. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: A. shoulder. B. forearm. C. wrist. D. interphalangeal joint. 18. When using mediate or indirect percussion, which technique is appropriate? A. Place the palmar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface with the fingers held together. B. Place the palmar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface with the fingers slightly spread apart. C. Place the ulnar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface with the fingers together. D. Place the ulnar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface with the fingers slightly spread apart. 17. During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: A. healthy lung tissue. B. emphysemic lungs. C. the liver. D. most of the abdomen. 16. Expected normal percussion tones include: A. dullness over the lungs. B. hyperresonance over the lungs. C. tympany over an empty stomach. D. flatness over an empty stomach. 15. The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone? A. The more dense the medium, the louder is the percussion tone. B. The less dense the medium, the louder is the percussion tone. C. The more hollow the area percussed, the quieter is the percussion tone. D. Percussion over muscle areas produces the loudest percussion tones. 14. Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process? A. Light palpation B. Deep palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation 13. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: A. crepitus. B. temperature. C. texture. D. vibration. 12. You are planning to palpate the abdomen of your patient. Which part of the examiner’s hand is best for palpating vibration? A. Dorsal surface B. Finger pads C. Fingertips D. Ulnar surface 11. Mrs. Smalls is a 42-year-old woman who has presented to the office for a head-to-toe examination as part of her preventive health care assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? A. Behind the patient B. Either side of the patient C. Seated in a chair in front of the patient D. To the right side of the patient 10. You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? A. Drape the patient and observe the rectal area. B. Tell the patient that his doctor will be notified of his problem. C. Tell the patient that you will ask the male nurse on the next shift to check on the problem. D. Give the patient an ice pack to apply to the area. 9. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: A. variations in skin color. B. enlarged tonsils. C. foreign objects in the nose or ear. D. variations in contour of the body surface. 8. Ms. Jones is a 31-year-old female patient who presents for a routine physical examination. Which examination technique will be used first? A. Light palpation B. Deep palpation C. Percussion D. Inspection 7. Which technique is used during both the history taking and the physical examination process? A. Auscultation B. Inspection C. Palpation D. Percussion 6. Mr. Walder is a 56-year-old man who has been complaining of chest palpitations. Which position is useful for auscultating heart sounds? A. Prone B. Dorsal recumbent C. Left lateral recumbent D. Right Sims 5. One recommendation to prevent latex allergy is to: A. wear latex gloves frequently to reduce sensitivity. B. use oil-based creams or lotions before donning gloves. C. wash hands with mild soap after removing gloves and then dry thoroughly. D. use well-powdered gloves with increased protein content. 4. Which patient is at the highest risk for developing latex allergy? A. The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized B. The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries C. The patient who is a vegetarian D. The patient who is allergic to contrast dye 3. According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions, the caregiver’s hands should be washed: A. only after touching body fluids with ungloved hands and between patient contacts. B. only after touching blood products with ungloved hands and after caring for infectious patients. C. only after working with patients who are thought to be infectious. D. after touching any body fluids or contaminated items, regardless of whether gloves are worn. 2. Standard Precautions apply: A. only to patients with bloodborne infections. B. only to patients with infected, draining wounds. C. only to patients believed to have an infectious disease. D. to all patients receiving care in hospitals. 1. Guidelines for Standard Precautions indicate that mask and eye protection or a face mask should be used while performing: A. tube feedings. B. patient bathing. C. wet-to-dry dressing changes. D. trachea care and suctioning. 36. Round face, preauricular fat, hyperpigmentation, and “buffalo hump” in the posterior cervical area are associated with: A. infantile hydrocephalus. B. acromegaly. C. Cushing syndrome. D. achondroplasia. 35. A prominent forehead, large nose, large jaw, and elongation of the facial bones and extremities are signs of: A. infantile hydrocephalus. B. acromegaly. C. Cushing syndrome. D. achondroplasia. 34. A pregnant woman of normal prepregnancy weight should be expected to gain how much weight per week during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy? A. 1 pound B. 1 pounds C. 2 pounds D. 2 pounds 33. Which breast Tanner stage corresponds to a secondary areola mound development above the breast? A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 5 32. Which Tanner stage is marked by the most significant growth in penis length? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 31. What is the youngest age at which pubic hair growth in the male may be considered normal? A. 7 years B. 8 years C. 9 years D. 10 years 30. At what age does peak height growth velocity occur in boys? A. 10 years B. 12 years C. 13 years D. 15 years 29. Which of following statements regarding female pubertal changes is true? A. Most adolescent girls will develop breasts before they develop pubic hair. B. Peak height velocity should occur after menarche. C. Breast asymmetry is an abnormal finding. D. Menarche should occur by Tanner breast stage 2. 28. A Mexican American mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to the clinic because this child is not maturing as quickly as her classmates. You examine the daughter and determine that her growth and physical findings are within normal limits. You should explain to the family that: A. Mexican Americans may develop more slowly than other ethnic groups. B. more tests should be conducted because the family appears so worried. C. the daughter should drink more juices and eat more fruit. D. there is a serious problem with the daughter’s development. 27. Upper/lower segment ratio should be calculated: A. bimonthly for the first year of life. B. annually for the first 5 years. C. only when a child is suspected of having a growth problem or unusual body proportions. D. in children of first-generation immigrants. 26. Which of the following situations poses the most concern? A. The child whose weight and height ratios have remained at the 50th percentile B. The child whose weight and height ratios have stayed between the 90th and 95th percentiles C. The child whose weight and height ratios have never been above the 50th percentile D. The child whose weight and height ratios have dropped 15 percentiles from the last visit 25. In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn’s: A. length. B. weight. C. lung maturity. D. gestational age. 24. Between 5 and 24 months of life, the infant’s chest circumference is normally: A. about equal to the head circumference. B. greater than head circumference by 2 inches. C. smaller than head circumference by about 4 inches. D. at least 2 inches smaller than head circumference. 23. To measure head circumference, the tape is wrapped snugly around the child’s head at the occipital protuberance and the: A. supraorbital prominence. B. brow line. C. nasal bridge. D. chin. 22. A marker for nutritional status is the: A. head circumference. B. waist-to-hip ratio. C. standing height. D. triceps skinfold thickness. 21. Infants born to the same parents are normally within which range of weight of each other? A. 6 ounces B. 12 ounces C. 1 pound D. 2 pounds 20. Healthy term babies generally double their birth weight by what age? A. 3 months B. 5 months C. 9 months D. 12 months 19. Which cultural group tends to have a wide variation in birth weights? A. Native Americans/American Indians B. Filipinos C. Norwegians D. Puerto Ricans 18. To estimate an individual’s frame size, the examiner should measure: A. skull circumference. B. the length from the olecranon process to the acromion process. C. elbow breadth. D. hip circumference. 17. Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of: A. adolescents. B. infants. C. school-age children. D. young adults. 16. Over the past two decades, there has been a trend toward: A. increased osteoporosis. B. preservation of height. C. obesity in older adults. D. preservation of muscle mass. 15. During a preventive health care visit, Ms. G., an older patient, states that she is getting shorter. She says that her son mentioned that her change in stature became noticeable to him during his last visit with her. Her posture appears straight and aligned. When addressing Ms. G.’s present concerns, it is most important to inquire about: A. number of pregnancies. B. parents’ heights. C. history of scoliosis. D. usual height and weight. 14. The rate of weight gain during pregnancy is expected to be: A. greatest in the first trimester. B. greatest in the second trimester. C. greatest in the third trimester. D. about the same in each trimester. 13. How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus? A. Less than 3 pounds B. 5 to 10 pounds C. 10 to 15 pounds D. 15 to 30 pounds 12. Optimal infant birth weight is difficult for pregnant adolescents to obtain because: A. they have not completed their own growth spurt. B. there are insufficient uterine supporting structures. C. the amnionic fluid is variable in pregnant adolescents. D. blood volume has not reached adult proportions. 11. Skeletal mass and organ systems double in size during: A. infancy. B. early childhood. C. adolescence. D. early adulthood. 10. The legs are the fastest growing body part during: A. early infancy. B. late infancy. C. childhood. D. early adulthood. 9. Mrs. Layton is a 33-year-old patient who has obesity. The majority of adult obesity begins: A. in adolescence. B. in childhood. C. after the skeletal growth is completed. D. once sexual maturation is complete.