Nurse Practitioner 6521. All Answwers Correct

Nurse Practitioner 6521 Quiz2HA 8. Gender-specific skeletal differences first occur during: A. the second stage of fetal development. B. late infancy. C. early childhood. D. adolescence. 7. Fifty percent of an individual’s ideal weight is gained during: A. pregnancy. B. preschool years. C. adolescence. D. early adulthood. 6. During adolescence, the head size normally increases as a result of: A. sinus development. B. brain mass increase. C. evolution of lymphatic tissue. D. hypertrophy of myelin. 5. Mrs. Jones has brought her 24-month-old child for a well visit. Which organ(s) completes physical development more quickly than any other body part? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Heart D. Lungs 4. By 10 to 12 years of age, lymphatic tissues are about: A. 25% of adult size. B. 50% of adult size. C. the same as adult size. D. twice the size of those in the adult. 3. After 50 years of age, stature: A. becomes fixed. B. begins a barely perceptible secondary increase. C. increases at a rate of 0.5 cm per year. D. declines. 2. Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, gonads, and: A. hypothalamus. B. islet cells. C. thalamus. D. thymus. 1. The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during: A. infancy. B. puberty. C. pregnancy. D. early adulthood. 2. The perception of pain: A. is the same across cultures. B. can be easily assessed neonates. C. is predictable with the same circumstances. D. is impacted by emotions and quality of sleep. The percepti 1. The Joint Commission (TJC, formerly The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations [JCAHO]) requires that: A. pain be assessed on all discharges. B. repeated assessment of pain be limited to those patients who complain of pain. C. repeated intensity documentation be made of the course of pain relief for all patients. D. pain be assessed on surgical patients. 3. A 5-year-old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: A. point a finger to the spot that hurts. B. draw a circle around the area that hurts. C. use a metaphor to describe the pain. D. identify how pain medication affects the pain. 4. Your 85-year-old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given antiinflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: A. the current pain is similar to previous pain. B. the left knee hurts as well. C. she took pain medication last night. D. the pain gets better when she sits. 5. Ms. Green is an 85-year-old female patient with dementia who presents to the emergency department with her daughter because of a change in function. Which pain assessment scale would be the best choice? A. Oucher Scale B. Checklist for Nonverbal Pain Indicators C. Wong/Baker Rating Scale D. CRIES Scale 6. Body language that leads you to suspect the person is in pain is: A. talkative, verbose speech. B. fretful hand movements. C. focused, fixed eye stares. D. marked salivation. 7. Mr. Green is a 68-year-old patient who has complained of pain. As the health care provider, you have decided to use a pain scale for documentation of the patient’s pain. The value of the use of scales for patients to rate their pain intensity is that: A. the emotional responses are factored in. B. correlation with others’ expectations is achieved. C. the patient’s response to therapy can be documented. D. subjective responses are eliminated. 8. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: A. throbbing and dull. B. burning or shocklike. C. tender and deep. D. cramping and spasmodic. 1. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? A. During the history-taking process B. During assessment of cranial nerves and deep tendon reflexes C. During the time when questions related to memory are asked D. Continually, throughout the entire interaction with a patient 2. A 69-year-old truck driver presents with a sudden loss of the ability to understand spoken language. This indicates a lesion in the: A. temporal lobe. B. Broca area. C. frontal cortex. D. cerebellum. 3. Mr. DeLaurentis is a 58-year-old man who presents to your office with slumped posture and a lack of facial expression, which may indicate depression or: A. Parkinson disease. B. anxiety. C. loss of abstract reasoning. D. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. 4. The ability for abstract thinking normally develops during: A. infancy. B. early childhood. C. adolescence. D. adulthood. Abstract thinking is an intellectual maturation that develops during adolescence. 5. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) may be used to: A. quantitatively estimate cognitive changes. B. qualitatively estimate personality disorders. C. diagnose neurologic disorders. D. determine the cause of memory loss. 6. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: A. ability to understand analogies. B. abstract reasoning. C. attention span. D. state of consciousness. 7. “Arousal for short periods to visual, verbal, or painful stimuli” describes which level of consciousness? A. Lethargy B. Delirium C. Stupor D. Coma 8. When you ask the patient to tell you the meaning of a proverb or metaphor, you are assessing which of the following? A. Level of consciousness B. Abstract reasoning C. Emotional stability D. Memory 9. Impairment of arithmetic skills is often due to: A. impaired execution of motor skills. B. impaired judgment. C. perceptual distortions. D. depression. 10. Peripheral neuropathy is most likely to be manifested by: A. impaired memory. B. impaired abstract reasoning. C. impaired writing ability. D. hallucinations. 11. Recent memory may be tested by: A. asking the patient to name the past four presidents. B. asking the patient to listen to and repeat a series of numbers. C. showing the patient four items and asking him to list the items about 10 minutes later. D. asking the patient about verifiable information, such as his or her mother’s maiden name. 12. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). B. impaired judgment. C. stupor. D. dementia. 13. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: A. judgment. B. attention span. C. arithmetic calculations. D. abstract reasoning. 14. Which of these observations would be most significant when assessing the condition of a patient who has judgment impairment? A. Repeated failure to complete work obligations B. Forgetting family members’ birth dates C. Going to church three times a week D. Planning for retirement in 20 years 15. Appropriateness of logic, sequence, cohesion, and relevance to topics are markers for assessment of: A. mood and feelings. B. attention span. C. thought process and content. D. abstract reasoning. 16. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? A. Olfactory B. Visual C. Auditory D. Tactile d 17. Flight of ideas or loosening of associations is associated with: A. aphasia. B. dysphonia. C. multiple sclerosis. D. psychiatric disorders. 18. Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: A. aphasia. B. impaired comprehension. C. neologisms. D. echolalia. 19. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to: A. determine the cause of decreased consciousness. B. diagnose disorders that alter level of consciousness. C. quantify consciousness. D. predict response to stimulant medications. 20. The Denver II is a tool used to determine: A. a child’s IQ. B. a child’s mood. C. whether a child is educable. D. whether a child is developing as expected. 21. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: A. presence and form of body parts. B. gender and race of the person drawn. C. approximate age and posture of the person drawn. D. length of time needed to draw a stick man. The prese 22. An older adult is administered the Set Test and scores a 14. The nurse interprets this score as indicative of: A. depression. B. cognitive impairment. C. delirium. D. dementia. 23. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? A. delirium B. dementia C. depression D. anxiety 24. “A clinical syndrome of failing memory and impairment of other intellectual functions, usually related to obvious structural diseases of the brain” describes: A. delirium. B. dementia. C. depression. D. anxiety. 25. Mrs. Griffiths, a 28-year-old patient, presents to your office to discuss her attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which statement is true in regard to ADHD? A. It occurs before 7 years of age. B. It is usually related to mental retardation. C. It is usually related to dementia. D. It is manifested by prolonged periods of catatonic behavior. 26. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. B. autism. C. dementia. D. mental retardation. 27. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of: A. depression. B. autistic disorder. C. mania. D. schizophrenia. 28. The patient who is delirious usually maintains orientation to: A. time. B. place. C. person. D. circumstance. 29. While interviewing a patient, you ask him to explain the “Lion and the Mouse” to assess: A. reading comprehension. B. attention span. C. mood and feeling. D. reasoning skills. 30. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) should be administered for the patient who: A. gets lost in her neighborhood. B. sleeps an excessive amount of time. C. has repetitive ritualistic behaviors. D. uses illegal hallucinogenic drugs. 32. George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to “check his allergies.” He has been having “green nasal discharge” for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care? A. G. M. is a 22-year-old male here for “allergies.” B. G. M. came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours. C. M., a 22-year-old male, states he has allergies and wants them checked. D. GM. is a 22-year-old male here for having “green nasal discharge” for the past 72 hours. Documentation of the chief complaint should always be done by using the patient’s own words in quotation marks. 31. Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)? A. Brief SOAP note B. Comprehensive health history C. Progress note D. Referral note 30. When recording physical findings, which data are recorded first for all systems? A. Inspection B. Percussion C. Palpation D. Auscultation 29. The examiner’s evaluation of a patient’s mental status belongs in the: A. history of present illness. B. review of systems. C. physical examination. D. patient education. 28. A SOAP note is used in which type of recording system? A. Preventive care B. Problem oriented C. Systems review D. Traditional treatment 27. Data relevant to the social history of older adults include information on: A. family support systems. B. previous health care visits. C. over-the-counter medication intake. D. date of last cancer screening. 26. Eye examination of the newborn does not routinely include assessment of: A. red reflex. B. corneal reflex. C. object tracking. D. fundus. . What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant? A. Fontanel sizes B. Liver span C. Prostate size D. Thyroid position 24. In which section of the newborn history would you find details of gestational assessment and extrauterine adjustment data? A. Family B. Past medical C. Personal and social D. Present problem 23. Information recorded about an infant differs from that recorded about an adult, mainly because of the infant’s: A. attention span. B. developmental status. C. nutritional differences. D. source of information. 22. Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G.’s _____ history. A. family B. past medical C. personal and social D. present problem 21. Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record? A. History of present illness B. Past medical history C. Social history D. Problem list 20. The review of systems is a component of the: A. physical examination. B. health history. C. assessment. D. past medical/surgical history. 19. The patient’s perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the: A. problem list. B. general patient information. C. social history. D. past medical history. 18. The effect of the chief complaint on the patient’s lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record? A. Chief complaint B. History of present illness C. Past medical history D. Social history 17. A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the: A. history of present illness. B. differential diagnosis. C. assessment. D. general patient information section. 16. Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n): A. progress note. B. accident report. C. problem-oriented medical record. D. triage note. 15. Which of the following is not a component of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record? A. Diagnostics ordered B. Therapeutics C. Patient education D. Differential diagnosis 14. When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should: A. combine all data into one assessment. B. create an assessment for each problem on the problem list. C. create an assessment for every abnormal physical finding. D. create an assessment for every symptom presented in the history. 13. Differential diagnoses belong in the: A. history. B. physical examination. C. assessment. D. plan. 12. A problem may be defined as anything that will require: A. evaluation. B. medication. C. surgery. D. treatment. 11. Which of the following is an example of a problem requiring recording on the patient’s problem list? A. Common age variations B. Expected findings C. Findings of unknown origin D. Minor variations 10. Drawing of stick figures is most useful to: A. compare findings in extremities. B. demonstrate radiation of pain. C. indicate consistency of lymph nodes. D. indicate mobility of masses. 9. Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting: A. a grading scale of 0 to 4. B. color and consistency. C. demographic data and risk factors. D. associated symptoms in alphabetic order. 8. The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks: A. are methods for recording locations of findings. B. are used for noting disease progression. C. are ways for recording laboratory study results. D. should not be used in the legal record. 7. Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during the recording of physical examinations? A. Relationship to anatomic landmarks B. Computer graphics C. Comparison with other patients of same gender and size D. Comparison to previous examinations using light pen markings 6. The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be: A. deferred until the cause is determined. B. described in the history. C. placed in the past medical history section. D. placed in the history with objective data. na sb 5. Subjective and symptomatic data are: A. documented with the physical examination findings. B. not mentioned in the legal chart. C. placed in the history section. D. recorded with the examination technique. 4. Ms. S. reports that she is concerned about her loss of appetite. During the history, you learn that her last child recently moved out of her house to go to college. Rather than infer the cause of Ms. S.’s loss of appetite, it would be better to: A. defer or omit her comments. B. have her husband call you. C. quote her concerns verbatim. D. refer her for psychiatric treatment. 3. During the course of the interview, you should: A. take no notes of any kind. B. take brief written notes. C. take detailed written notes. D. repeat pertinent comments into a Dictaphone. 2. Which part of the information contained in the patient’s record may be used in court? A. Subjective information only B. Objective information only C. Diagnostic information only D. All information 1. If information is purposefully omitted from the record, you should: A. erase the notes that are not pertinent. B. accept that sometimes data are omitted. C. state in the record why the information was omitted. D. use correction fluid to cover the information.